Cochlear nonlinearities

[pkane2001]

1 minute ago, esldude said:

Sorry much too big a reach.  This isn't any explanation of how 96 khz would be better than 44.1 khz for music.  For one there is no consistent way that speakers respond to such frequencies.  Most don't have any appreciable response in the first place. 

 

And the Tinnitus study is a bit of a stretch, considering they used sound beaming with a 90kHz modulated carrier to direct audio signal to a listener. This type of beaming is extremely unlikely to occur under normal circumstances and requires a very loud carrier signal relative to the audio content it carries in order to trigger the non-linearities in the air to demodulate it. Cool technology, though

 

[pkane2001]

1 minute ago, jabbr said:

That’s just one random study of many — point being that nonlinearities can decompose ultrasonic into sonic — that’s all — there are other studies and other mechanisms and other nonlinearities. 

 

How tight do you want to hold on to fixed beliefs despite research?

 

You referenced the study to make a point, not me

 

I actually don't have a strong opinion on this.  But just because cochlea may be non-linear is not a proof that ultrasound makes any difference in hearing. Show me some proper studies that demonstrate that ultrasound at normal levels can be detected as part of musical material and I'll agree that it might matter for audio recording/playback.

[pkane2001]

29 minutes ago, jabbr said:

 

The very specific point I was referencing is that nonlinearities might introduce Sonics as a result of ultrasonics. That’s all. 

 

I am saying that, based on the science we know, it is possible that 24/96 is audibly different than 16/44.1 at least in some circumstances. 

 

I have said many times that I’m not yet convinced either way. I am leaning toward a small difference in some circumstances. 

 

You should get the idea that I don’t adhere to the dogma that 16/44.1 encompasses all that we might ever hear. 

 

I get it. There's no need to present studies that demonstrate that nonlinear systems cause subharmonics. That's a proven fact and can be modeled  by some math for any nonlinear system, as long as the transfer function is known.

 

What I don't see in any of the referenced studies is that the cochlea nonlinearity actually results in audible, detectable subharmonics from ultrasound. To my mind, until you can show that, all you have is a hypothesis about how it might possibly work. That's an interesting fact, but in no way a convincing proof of audibility.