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BLIND TEST INVITE: Do digital audio players sound different?


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52 minutes ago, jabbr said:

 

My answer is : no it isn't "enough" to measure the audible range... if that were the case then why not just measure 16/44? ... answer that for yourself, and start from there ... in any case a validation process might indeed sweep into the Mhz or Ghz range to see if that might have an effect (e.g. IMD), rather than simply assuming.

 

In any case I'm not saying that the testing procedure is incapable of demonstrating differences, rather I was asking if the testing procedure had been validated ... it doesn't seem to be, and this is intended to capture large differences, and of course large differences in the audible range would be expected to have the biggest SQ difference, and might be totally fine for the purposes here ...

 

post-hoc validation ??

 

or at east, post hack argumentation

 

of course, we do not know which players were used, so it is possible that the range of types is so wide that some differences will be heard no matter what

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